A 52-year-old executive complains to her family physician of blurred vision. Examination reveals she is unable to adduct her left eye when looking right. She also is unable to adduct her right eye when looking to the left. Medial rectus function in her left and right eyes appears normal as she focuses on near targets. Which of the following most accurately explains her condition?
A) Compression of the left oculomotor nerve B) A lesion in the abducens nucleus C) Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia D) Convergence insufficiency E) Impaired smooth pursuit
A 31-year-old woman complains to her ophthalmologist that a large dark spot is obstructing vision in her right eye. The woman states that the spot has developed over a few months. Ophthalmologic examination reveals a hemorrhage near the optic disc. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Optic neuritis B) Right scotoma C) Presbyopia D) Retinal detachment E) Amblyopia
A 66-year-old man has an ophthalmologic examination. He complains that his vision has dimmed in the left visual field of his left eye. Ophthalmoscopic examination indicates a significantly increased cup-to-disc ratio in the left eye. Which of the following most specifically characterizes the condition in this man?
A) Visual agnosia B) Prosopagnosia C) Glaucoma D) Mydriasis E) Presbyopia