Question 6

(Multiple Choice)

In ideal occlusion the mandibular first molar is stolarized because neither its mesial nor distal contact areas are open.


A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Answer