Question 4

(Multiple Choice)

A physician orders a computed tomographic scan for a 42-year-old man after he is admitted to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and a headache that has progressively worsened throughout the day. A hemorrhagic lesion is revealed in the superior half of the cerebellum. Which of the following blood vessels primarily supplies this area of the cerebellum?


A) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
B) Short circumferential branches of the basilar artery
C) Superior cerebellar artery
D) Vertebral artery
E) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

Answer